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The map from the hyperboloid to the Poincaré disk

Starting with a point $ (x,y,z)$ on $ x^2+y^2+1=z^2$, we follow these maps to $ (\frac{x}{z},\frac{y}{z})$, and then to the point on the lower hemisphere

$\displaystyle \left(\frac{x}{z},\frac{y}{z},-\sqrt{1-\frac{x^2}{z^2}-\frac{y^2}{z^2}}\right)
=\left(\frac{x}{z},\frac{y}{z},-\frac{1}{z}\right),
$

and then ultimately to the point

$\displaystyle F(x,y,z)= r+is= \frac{x+iy}{1+z}
$

in the Poincaré disk.

To invert this map, note that $ x=(1+z)r$ and $ y=(1+z)s$. Squaring, we get $ (r^2+s^2)(1+z)^2=x^2+y^2=z^2-1$. Thus, $ r^2+s^2=\frac{z^2-1}{(z+1)^2}=\frac{z-1}{z+1}$. That gives

$\displaystyle z=\frac{1+r^2+s^2}{1-r^2-s^2}.
$

If we set $ \zeta=r+is$, we then obtain

$\displaystyle F^{-1}(\zeta)=\left(
\frac{2\Re\zeta}{1-\vert\zeta\vert^2},\frac{...
...}{1-\vert\zeta\vert^2},
\frac{1+\vert\zeta\vert^2}{1-\vert\zeta\vert^2}\right)
$

It is worth checking that $ F^{-1}\circ F(x,y,z)=(x,y,z)$ and $ F\circ
F^{-1}(\zeta)=\zeta$, but we leave this to the reader.



David J Wright 2004-11-24